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One week following an injection of aqueous penicillin, a patient develops joint pains, a
red, pruritic skin rash, fever and lymphadenopathy. Presuming that the diagnosis of serum
sickness is correct:
A. the antibody involved is probably IgD.
B. the antibody involved is probably IgA.
C. no antibody is involved, since this syndrome is secondary to a cell-mediated immune
reaction.
D. the serum concentration of complement would be decreased.
E. readministration of penicillin at a later date could be accomplished without hazard.

Isha@2663 Answered question August 17, 2024