One week following an injection of aqueous penicillin, a patient develops joint pains, a
red, pruritic skin rash, fever and lymphadenopathy. Presuming that the diagnosis of serum
sickness is correct:
A. the antibody involved is probably IgD.
B. the antibody involved is probably IgA.
C. no antibody is involved, since this syndrome is secondary to a cell-mediated immune
D. the serum concentration of complement would be decreased.
E. readministration of penicillin at a later date could be accomplished without hazard.
ravisingh Asked question July 21, 2021