A synthetic progestin. What is the most likely explanation for the contraceptive action of this drug?
a. Replacement of the LH surge by an FSH surge.
b. Abolition of the LH surge
c. Enhanced positive feedback of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
d. Increased conversion of testosterone to estradiol.
e. Inadequate decidualization of the uterus.

Emily_DSouza Answered question August 2, 2022